Chapter 14 and 15 Quiz

1. The ability of antibodies to promote phagocytosis is called _____ .

1. complementation
2. opsonisation
3. chemotaxis
4. extravasation

 

2. Small organic molecules that by themselves are NOT antigenic but have the potential to become one, when attached to a larger molecule, are called _______ .

1. haptens
2. interferons
3. antibodies
4. complement

 

3. Immediate hypersensitivity is mediated by ______, while delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by _____ .

1. antibodies ; T lymphocytes
2. histamine; haptens
3. histamine; leukotrienes
4. T lymphocytes; antibodies

4. Tissue transplants should have matching _______ to prevent rejection in the host.

1. All of the choices are correct
2. MHC molecules
3. blood types
4. interleukins

5. Interferons _______.

1. provide humoral immunity
2. are produced by viruses
3. stimulate viral replication
4. provide nonspecific immunity

 

6. Antigen-presenting cells are necessary for ______ response to a foreign antigen.

1. B lymphocyte
2. antibody
3. macrophage
4. T lymphocyte

 

7. The ________ immune response occurs faster, is stronger , and lasts longer than the ______ immune response.

1. secondary, tertiary
2. tertiary, primary
3. secondary, primary
4. primary, secondary

 

8. What system helps to integrate innate and adaptive immune responses?

1. Complement
2. Cytokines
3. PAMPs
4. Interferon

 

9. Colostrum provides infants with ____ immunity.

1. innate
2. active
3. direct
4. passive

 

10. Primarily phagocytic cells include all of the following EXCEPT________.

1. Kupffer cells
2. macrophages
3. microglia
4. lymphocytes

 

11.How does the innate immune system recognize a foreign cell?

1. The presence of toll-like receptors.
2. The presence of pathogen-associated molecular patterns.
3. The presence of organ-specific phagocytes.
4. The presence of complement.

 

12. The primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus is the ______ .

1. memory cell
2. macrophage
3. helper T lymphocyte
4. plasma cell

 

13. T lymphocytes ___________.

1. secrete antibodies
2. All of the choices are correct
3. mature in thymus
4. differentiate in the bone marrow

 

14. The clonal selection of B lymphocytes ______ .

1. results in an attenuated response  the second time an individual is exposed to the antigen
2. results in the development of plasma and memory cells
3. All of the choices are correct
4. occurs due to the previous response of an individual to an antigen

 

15. The two categories of immune defensive mechanisms are _____ and ______ .

1.   heavy immunity; light immunity 
2. innate  (nonspecific) immunity; adaptive (specific) immunity 
3. direct immunity;  indirect immunity
4. passive immunity;  active immunity

 

16. What is the process of drawing leukocytes to the site of an infection?

1.  Opsorization
2. Chemotaxis 
3. Diapedesis
4. Extravasation

 

17. Which of the following is involved with delayed hypersensitivity?

1. All of the choice are correct
2. Hay fever
3. IgE secretion
4. Contact dermatitis

18. Helper T cell activation occurs more readily if the antigen presenting cells are _______ .

1. dendritic cells and macrophages
2. neutrophils and basophils
3. B and T lymphocytes
4. macrophages and mast cells

 

19. Artificially gaining active immunity through ______ provides exposure to nonvirulent pathogens or nonpathogenic antigens.

1. delayed-hypersensitivity
2. vaccination
3. allergy
4. auto-immunity

 

20. Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphoid organ?

1. thymus
2. spleen
3. lymph nodes
4. tonsils

 

21. Neutrophils and monocytes are able to leave the blood and enter tissues via diapedesis.

1. False
2. True

 

22. Inhibiting the actions of helper T lymphocytes may impair humoral immunity.

1. False
2. True

 

23. The presence of a foreign antigen in a patient’s blood induced the production of antibodies. This demonstrates a component passive immune response

1. True
2. False

 

24. Chemotaxis involves the chemical attraction of phagocytes to the site of an infection.

1. False
2. True

 

25. T cells have receptors for antigens and will bind to free antigens in the same manner as B cells.

1. False
2. True

 

26. What is the function of granzymes?

1. Bind to the plasma membrane of the host cell
2. Polymerize cell membranes to form a large pore
3. Activate complement
4. Activate caspases that destroys the cell’s DNA

 

27. Which of the following would NOT be an effective method of producing a vaccine?

1. Use live, attenuated viruses
2. Use killed virulent viruses 
3. Use cloned antibodies
4. Use recombinant viral proteins

 

28. What distinguishes cytotoxic T cells from other T lymphocytes?

1. Their role in cell-mediated immunity, rather than humoral immunity
2. Their site of differentiation
3. Their ability to stimulate the production of the T lymphocytes, as well as B lymphocytes
4. Their ability to destroy a normal cell that is infected with a pathogen

 

29. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is able to cause widespread immunodeficiency because ______ .

1. through infection of T cells, HIV prevents the product of antibodies against the virus
2. the HIV virus blocks the activation of complement system
3. the HIV virus infiltrates the cells responsible for innate immunity, the first line of defense against pathogens
4. the HIV virus interferes with activation of both B cells and T cells

 

30. Active immunity can be acquired in a number of ways. Which scenario exhibits how active immunity is acquired?

1.   A mother passes antibodies on to her baby through breast milk.    
2.  An immunocompetent person receives a blood transfusion to receive donor immunoglobulins
3. A fetus is exposed to antigens in the mother’s bloodstream, and develops immunoglobulins
4. A person experiences a viral infection.

 

31. Blood flow is increased by _______ .

1. hypotension
2. vasoconstriction
3. edema
4. vasodilation

 

32. The steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, which stimulates salt reabsorption in the kidneys is ______ .

1. ADH
2. renin
3. aldosterone
4. angiotensin

 

 

33. Imagine a patient with a stiff, non-compliant left ventricle is prescribed a medication that acts as an agonist to norepinephrine. The medication would be effective because _______ .

1. blood pressure would increase, moving blood through the circulatory system more rapidly
2. heart rate would increase, compensating for the reduced stroke volume
3. heart rate would decrease, reducing the workload on the heart
4. cardiac output would increase, forcing the ventricle to become more compliant

 

34. What allows cardiac muscle to have sufficient oxygen during systole?

1. Many aerobic enzymes
2. Many mitochondria
3. Large amount of myoglobin
4. All of the choices are correct

 

35. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole is known as the _______.

1.   pre-diastolic volume(PDV)
2. after- load
3. stroke volume (SV)
4. end-diastolic volume (EDV)

 

36. Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which angiotensin II raises blood pressure?

1. Stimulating the thirst center in the hypothalamus
2. Stimulating production of aldosterone
3. Causing vasodilation in arterioles
4. Increasing peripheral resistance

 

37. Endothelin causes ______ .

1. vasodilation
2. vasoconstriction
3. no effect

 

38. Venous return is increased by all of the following EXCEPT ______ .

1. increased blood volume
2. sympathetic stimulation of the veins
3. the skeletal muscle pump
4. exhalation

 

39. Edema would be induced by all of the following EXCEPT_______.

1.    hyperthyroidism 
2. lymphatic blockage
3. hypertension 
4. protein malnutrition

 

 

40.Cardiac output is equal to ______ .

1. stroke volume + cardiac rate
2. stroke volume/ cardiac rate
3. stroke volume – cardiac rate
4. stroke volume x cardiac rate

 

41. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will _______ .

1. increase the rate of depolarization in the ventricles
2. increase the strength of myocardial contraction
3. All of the choices are correct.
4. increase conduction rate between the SA and AV nodes

 

42. A failure of blood pressure to increase upon standing is known as ______ .

1. postural (orthostatic) bradycardia
2. postural (orthostatic) atherosclerosis
3. postural (orthostatic) tachycardia
4. postural (orthostatic) hypotension

 

43. Hypertension may cause all of the following EXCEPT:

1. Increased afterload
2. Broken capillaries in tissues and organs
3. Increased stroke volume
4. Hypertrophy of the ventricles and valve defects

 

44. A person with a decreased blood pressure, rapid pulse, and cold clammy skin would be suffering from ______ .

1. peripheral edema
2. myocardial ischemia
3. hypovolemic shock
4. atherosclerosis

 

 

45. Elephantiasis is caused by ______ .

1. high arterial blood pressure
2. decreased plasma protein concentration
3. myxedema
4. obstruction of lymphatic drainage

 

46. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like captopril block the formation of angiotensin II, thus reducing _______ .

1. vasodilation
2. renal excretion
3. renal reabsorption
4. vasoconstriction

 

 

47. What is the normal range of heart rate for an adult?

1. 50 to 100 beats/min
2. 60 to 100 beats/min
3. 70 to 100 beats/min
4. 80 to 110 beats/min

 

48. Hypertension can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT ________ .

1. sympathetic agonists
2. ACE inhibitors
3. diuretics
4. calcium channel blockers

 

49. Stroke volume is affected by all of the following EXCEPT ______.

1. emotional stress
2. cardiac contractility
3. total peripheral resistance
4. end diastolic volume (EDV)

 

50. The hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) functions antagonistically to ______ .

1. angiotensin I
2. glucocorticoids
3. aldosterone
4. ADH

 

51. Which is NOT a symptom of preeclampsia?

1. Edema
2. Increased vasodilation
3. Hypertension
4. Proteinuria

 

52. Cardiogenic shock can result from _______.

1. increased cardiac output
2. myocardial infarction
3. parasympathetic antagonists
4. increased sympathetic outflow to the heart

 

53. What is the main force that causes fluids to enter the venous end of a capillary?

1. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillary
2. Colloid osmotic pressure in the interstitial fluid
3. Hydrostatic force in the interstitial fluid
4. Colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary (blood plasma)

 

54. Dizziness during hyperventilation is due to a decrease in cerebral blood flow. The decreased blood flow is caused by ______ .

1. vasodilation
2. vasoconstriction
3. decreased respiration
4. decreased stroke volume

 

55. Dangerously low blood pressure that results from infection is _______ shock

1. cardiogenic
2. septic
3. neurogenic
4. anaphylactic

 

56. Nitric oxide (NO) causes ______ .

1. vasoconstriction
2. vasodilation
3. no effect

 

57. The type of shock resulting from lipopolysaccharides is termed ______ shock .

1. septic
2. cardiogenic
3. hypovolemic
4. neurogenic

 

58. Cardiac output increases as stroke volume increases.

1. False
2. True

 

59. Preload is the amount of blood in the ventricles right before they begin to contract.

1. True
2. False

 

60. As cardiac muscle is stretched, it contracts with less force.

1. False
2. True